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A question about grammar

July 16, 2017 09:02AM

I've had this question for some time and today, after finding the same mistake (or what I think is a mistake) in a book for the umpteenth time, I decided to ask for your help.

I'm not a native speaker. I learnt English at school and all of my teachers (and all of my grammar books) taught me that, when using a comparative adjective, after "than" goes an objective pronoun, not a subjective one.

E.g. He's taller than her = right

E.g. He's taller than she = wrong

But it's correct to say:

He's taller than she is.

That's the rule as I know it. However, in each and every book I've read so far, I found something like:

"He had more to prove than they."

I should probably point out that these books are mosty written by American authors, and have all been published in the last fifteen to twenty years. I don't remember ever finding this "mistake" in Austen or Dickens.

I'd really like to know if this is a new rule or if it's still correct to use comparatives the way I learnt. Links to articles about grammar would be welcome, if you know any.

Thank you!

A question about grammar

LilyJuly 16, 2017 09:02AM

Re: A question about grammar

JanetRJuly 16, 2017 03:08PM

Re: A question about grammar

Lily - not logged inJuly 18, 2017 02:28PM

Re: A question about grammar

DorotheeJuly 19, 2017 06:04PM

Re: A question about grammar

AlanAugust 06, 2017 07:47AM

Re: A question about grammar

Harvey S.July 18, 2017 04:51PM

Re: A question about grammar

DorotheeJuly 17, 2017 10:21AM

Re: A question about grammar

cpaulineJuly 21, 2017 03:40PM


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